If any old application could use the Google Earth data, it is conceivable that Google may view those applications as competition (or potential competition) for products that they derive income from directly (such as Google Earth Pro). I know that sounds anti-competitive, ...
Yes, anti-competitive, but they already have lots of free competition, in the form of web browsers. I know the presentation of the maps in a web browser isn't as fancy as in a 3D application, but why wouldn't the user be free to use and make his own additional software? Morally this looks very dirty, but let's continue looking at the legal aspects.
...but there is nothing, as far as I can tell, that requires Google to make their data available to even web browsers.
No, AFAIK there is no such law. But they do make it available to web browsers. Or, the way I see it, they make it available to anyone on the internet, in a form that is suitable for web browsers. They are not required to, but this is what they do.
They have made it available (like a teaser, or shareware, concept) and you are complaining that they don't make it more available?
No, why would they have to make it
more available? Available is available.
What right do you think you have to use Google's data in any way you see fit? Or mine, for that matter? (I hope that tone doesn't sound to over-bearing, it is a genuine question...)
When I send a request to Google's servers, they return this data to me. There is no reason to assume this is done by mistake: it is clear that Google makes these maps available to anyone. So, I have access to this data, and that seems to be OK to Google.
Now when it comes to "use in any way you see fit", I think there are three cases:
- Not permitted by copyright law, not explicitly permitted by Google: I have legally no right to do this. All that remains is a discussion whether copyright law is a good thing.
- Permitted by copyright law, explicitly not permitted by Google (or other copyright holders) (through their terms of use): see below.
- Permitted by Google (and other copyright holders): I see no problem at all in this case.
- Permitted by copyright law, not explicitly not permitted by Google (or other copyright holders): I guess this defaults to the standard copyright terms.
There seems a legal basis to me:
You refer to the terms of use, as written by Google. This is not the same as copyright law.
AFAIK, these terms of use are a kind of contract, and as such they can contain all kinds of things. But AFAIK contracts are only valid to parties that agreed to them. I could make a contract that says "all your dollars are belong to me", but unless you agree to it, it doesn't force you in any way to give me your dollars.
Usually, terms of use are enforced by the copyright holder by not giving a user a license to use the data, unless he/she agrees to the terms of use. But in this case, Google makes the data available to all internet users, also to the ones who didn't even
read the terms of use (and in fact I think most people don't even know of their existence), let alone
agree to them.
I think the
developers, even those of TileProxy, are safe. Strictly speaking, they only need to reverse engineer the URL system (and probably not even that, as Google provides a lot of documentation), and then set up their own testing server with some public domain maps, to test their software against. Not using it means you don't need a license.
When it comes to the
users, as long as they haven't agreed to the terms of use in any way, I don't see how they are bound to them. In fact, if these users use Google maps through e.g. a plugin in Orbiter, they may not even be aware that such terms of use exist.
What Google should do is to let people first agree to the terms of use, and then e.g. give them an access code for private use only. Providing access without any prior signing of terms of use looks to me like giving a license without any additional terms of use. All 'standard terms' written down in copyright law is still valid of course.
BTW, I know legal experts who say that, at least in Dutch law, it is even very questionable whether the license you see in typical software installers has any legal validity, because the user is forced to agree to it
after the software was bought. AFAIK this hasn't been tested in court.
I have a book about (Dutch) 'intellectual property' law. I'll read it again with this case in mind, to see if I can find something.