Will
New member
Hello,
I am reading "Quantum Mechanics and Path Integrals" and the first few chapters are a 'recap' (at least it would be for the age of people it's aimed at) of classical mechanics. There is a section on the Lagrangian and principle of least action etc and the derivation of Lagrange's equation is fine and I understand all that (at least I think I do). Then there is a set of problems. The first if "For a free particle L=(m/2)(x(dot))^2 show that the classical action is (m/2)((x(subscript b) - x(subscript a))^2/(t (subscript b) - t(subscript a))) . So, take the partial derivative of L with respect to x(dot) and get m(x(dot)), fine. Then with respect to just x, I went about this by saying that (for d read partial differential) (dL/dx)=(dl/dx(dot)) x (dx(dot)/dx) so then m(x(dot)) x d(x(dot))/dx = dL/dx so m(x(dot)) x x(dot dot) = dl/dx (not sure about this part, I did d(x(dot))/dx by another method and got x(dot dot)/x(dot), unsure which (if either) is correct)) then sub this into Lagrange's equation: (d is no longer partial) d/dt(mx(dot)) - mx(dot)x(dot dot) = 0 then I'm not entirely sure where to go from here, or even if the above is relevant and correct.
Thanks,
Will
EDIT: this particular problem is now solved! See post 5
I am reading "Quantum Mechanics and Path Integrals" and the first few chapters are a 'recap' (at least it would be for the age of people it's aimed at) of classical mechanics. There is a section on the Lagrangian and principle of least action etc and the derivation of Lagrange's equation is fine and I understand all that (at least I think I do). Then there is a set of problems. The first if "For a free particle L=(m/2)(x(dot))^2 show that the classical action is (m/2)((x(subscript b) - x(subscript a))^2/(t (subscript b) - t(subscript a))) . So, take the partial derivative of L with respect to x(dot) and get m(x(dot)), fine. Then with respect to just x, I went about this by saying that (for d read partial differential) (dL/dx)=(dl/dx(dot)) x (dx(dot)/dx) so then m(x(dot)) x d(x(dot))/dx = dL/dx so m(x(dot)) x x(dot dot) = dl/dx (not sure about this part, I did d(x(dot))/dx by another method and got x(dot dot)/x(dot), unsure which (if either) is correct)) then sub this into Lagrange's equation: (d is no longer partial) d/dt(mx(dot)) - mx(dot)x(dot dot) = 0 then I'm not entirely sure where to go from here, or even if the above is relevant and correct.
Thanks,
Will
EDIT: this particular problem is now solved! See post 5
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